Final answer to the problem
$x=\frac{1}{3}\pi+2\pi n,\:x=\frac{5}{3}\pi+2\pi n\:,\:\:n\in\Z$
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- Express in terms of sine and cosine
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1
Why is 1 - cos(x)^2 = sin(x)^2 ?
Applying the trigonometric identity: $\sin\left(\theta \right)^2 = 1-\cos\left(\theta \right)^2$
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$4\left(1-\cos\left(x\right)^2\right)+8\cos\left(x\right)-7=0$
Learn how to solve problems step by step online. Solve the trigonometric equation 4sin(x)^2+8cos(x)+-7=0. Applying the trigonometric identity: \sin\left(\theta \right)^2 = 1-\cos\left(\theta \right)^2. Multiply the single term 4 by each term of the polynomial \left(1-\cos\left(x\right)^2\right). We can try to factor the expression -3-4\cos\left(x\right)^2+8\cos\left(x\right) by applying the following substitution. Substituting in the polynomial, the expression results in.
Final answer to the problem
$x=\frac{1}{3}\pi+2\pi n,\:x=\frac{5}{3}\pi+2\pi n\:,\:\:n\in\Z$
